Rules clarification

Did Utah get a first down after the Bradley interception because the "fumble" was recovered past the 1st down marker or due to change in possession? I believe it was due to yardage, correct? If it was recovered by Utah short of the first down marker, after already changing possession to byu, then it counts as a down and ends up being 3rd or 4th down, right?



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I think it was a first down because of a change in possession. Bradley could have run it back to the :utard: 10 yard line then fumbled & it would be a :utard: first down.

BYULV wrote:
Did Utah get a first down after the Bradley interception because the "fumble" was recovered past the 1st down marker or due to change in possession? I believe it was due to yardage, correct? If it was recovered by Utah short of the first down marker, after already changing possession to byu, then it counts as a down and ends up being 3rd or 4th down, right?



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I think it is a 1st down during a change of possession no matter what. Right?

declocoug wrote:

Did Utah get a first down after the Bradley interception because the "fumble" was recovered past the 1st down marker or due to change in possession? I believe it was due to yardage, correct? If it was recovered by Utah short of the first down marker, after already changing possession to byu, then it counts as a down and ends up being 3rd or 4th down, right?



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I think it is a 1st down during a change of possession no matter what. Right?

Yep. It is considered a knew possession, a turnover for both teams, and a new drive.

Right, think of it as Utah recovering a BYU fumble essentially.